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Are you still searching for Cisco640-875 dumps exam? The Building Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Networks, Part 1 (640-875 SPNGN1) exam tests basic knowledge and skills that are necessary to support a service provider network. This 90 minutes exam consists of 65 – 75 questions and covers Building Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Networks, Part 1 course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCNA Service Provider certifications. The exam 640-875 dumps download SPNGN1 certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Building Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Networks, Part 1
Exam Number: 640-875
Associated Certifications: CCIE Routing & Switching
Duration: 90 minutes (65 – 75 questions)
Available Languages: English

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-875 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-14)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag the IPv4 leading address bits on the left and drop them on the correct type of IPv4 addresses on the right. Not all options on the left are used.
Select and Place:
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DRAG DROP
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Correct Answer:
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DRAG DROP
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QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit.
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Drag the ports on the left and drop them on the correct port type on the right. Not all of the left options are needed.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag the features from the left and drop them on the matching descriptions on the right. Not all features on the left are used.
Select and Place:
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640-875 pdf Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 6
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DRAG DROP
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HOTSPOT
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[New Dumps] Best Cisco 300-365 Dumps PDF CCNP Wireless Exam Questions Answers Is What You Need To Take Q1-Q24 https://www.itcertlab.com/best-cisco-300-365-dumps.html Mon, 21 May 2018 08:53:39 +0000 https://www.itcertlab.com/?p=1133 Are you still searching for Cisco 300-365 dumps exam? The Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (300-365 WIDEPLOY) […]

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Are you still searching for Cisco 300-365 dumps exam? The Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (300-365 WIDEPLOY) exam tests ot implementing wireless networks based on the applicable Cisco controller and Unified switching architectures that support high availability, QoS, multicast, and mobility services. This 90 minutes exam consists of 55 – 65 questions and covers Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCNP Wireless certifications. The exam 300-365 dumps WIDEPLOY certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Exam Number: 300-365
Associated Certifications: CCIE Routing & Switching
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-365 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-24)

QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
What two items need to be supported on the VoWLAN phones in order to take full advantage of this WLAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A. APSD
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11e
D. WMM
E. 802.11r
F. SIFS
300-365 exam Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
A network engineer for a college dormitory notices that student devices are filling up the SP-DB and are not allowing the shared wireless printers to be discovered. Which feature can be used to reserve space in the SP-DB for the printers?
A. mDNS-AP
B. LSS
C. Priority MAC
D. sso
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to Exhibit.
300-365 dumps
300-365 dumps
A wireless client is connecting to FlexAPI which is currently working standalone mode. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs: Tunnel-Private-Group-ld(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65):IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) Which three behaviors will the client experience? (Choose three.)
A. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
B. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
C. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will be de-authenticated.
D. While the AP is in standalone mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
E. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 13.
F. When the AP transitions to connected mode the client will remain associated.
G. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 15.
H. When the AP is in connected mode the client will be placed in VLAN 10.
300-365 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B. MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C. A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D. There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E. Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
On which AP radio or radios is Cisco WGB association supported?
A. 2.4 GHz only
B. 2.4 or 5 GHz only
C. 2.4 5 or 4.9 GHz
D. 5 GHz only
300-365 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?
A. mobility groups
B. flex-connect roups
C. interface groups
D. APgroups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is not a Cisco RF fingerprinting key advantage over Location Tracking?
A. Uses existing LWAPP-enabled Cisco Unified Networking components.
B. Proprietary client hardware or software is required.
C. Better accuracy and precision.
D. Reduced calibration effort.
300-365 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
300-365 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer used an interface group under the SSID configuration but noticed that a test client is getting an IP assigned in a different VLAN from the DHCP server. Which two options override the interface group configuration on the SSID? (Choose two.)
A. static VLAN on client
B. ACL
C. APgroup
D. static IP on client
E. MAC filtering
F. RFgroup
G. AAA override
Correct Answer: CG

QUESTION 11
A WLAN engineer has been asked to upgrade the software on a MSE 3365 Appliance. The engineer cannot access the system using the root password and the Grub password as the details had never been documented. How should the engineer perform the password recovery?
A. Use a console cable.
B. Contact Cisco TAC and arrange an RMA of the MSE.
C. Boot the MSE using the software installation DVD.
D. The Password can be reset using Prime Infrastructure.
300-365 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to distinguish IP voice traffic from client data traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. WeightedQueuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?
A. show ap config general Cisco_AP
B. show wlan wlan_id
C. show fexconnect summary
D. show fexconnect group detail
300-365 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC. Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)
A. All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller
B. Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C. Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D. Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E. EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F. Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G. Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
H. The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.
Correct Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 15
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark capture when querying for a mDNS service
in the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
300-365 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that the remote site be able to utilize local servers when the AP is in WAN-down (standalone mode). Which AP mode must be configured on the wireless controller?
A. SE-Connect
B. Monitor
C. Local
D. FlexConnect
E. Sniffer
F. Rogue Detector
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
What are two functions of the RAP in a mesh network? (Choose two.)
A. It provides a wired connection for the wireless mesh APs.
B. It adds capacity and resilience to a mesh area.
C. It creates a centralized management location for the mesh network.
D. It reduces the hop count to the wireless network that is connected to the edge.
E. It routes traffic from the wireless mesh to the wired network.
300-365 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?
A. 224.0.0.13
B. 224.0.1.39
C. 224.0.0.14
D. 224.0.140
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
A wireless engineer wants to enable optimized roaming for their 5GHz wireless network with these settings: -72dBm RSSI value 25% coverage exception level percentage and a minimum of 50 packets received. Which two commands achieve these settings? (Choose two.)
A. config advanced 802.11a coverage data fail-percentage 25
B. config advanced 802.11b optimized-roaming enable
C. config advanced 802.11b coverage data rssi-threshold -72
D. config advanced 802.11a optimized-roaming enable
E. config advanced 802.11a coverage data rssi-threshold -72
300-365 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 20
An engineer wants to configure WebEx to adjust the precedence and override the QoS profile on the WLAN. Which configuration is needed to complete this task?
A. Change the AVC application WebEx-app-sharing to mark
B. Create an ACL for WebEx.
C. Change the WLAN reserved bandwidth for WebEx.
D. Create an AVC profile for WebEx marked with a lower DSCP value
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
300-365 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs. What feature is necessary to correct the issue?
A. controller IGMP snooping
B. unicast AP Multicast Mode
C. broadcast forwarding
D. multicast AP Multicast Mode
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0 which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.
300-365 vce Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 24
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B

Cisco 300-365 Dumps Recommended Training

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

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  • Deploying Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (WIDEPLOY) – Instructor led training

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-25)

QUESTION 1
Which two statements about EIGRP acknowledgement packets are true?(choose two)
A. They are unicast
B. They are Hello packets sent without data
C. They can combine multiple packs in a single packet
D. They are multicast
E. They are broadcast
F. They are required for every request packet
400-101 exam Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which set of commands conditionally advertises 172.16.0.0/24 as long as 10.10.10.10/32 is the routing table?
A. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV exist-map EXT route-map ADV
match IP address prefix-list ADV
route-map EXT
match IP address prefix-list EXT
ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24
ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32
B. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV
route-map ADV
match IP address prefix-list ADV
match IP address prefix-list EXT
ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24
ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32
C. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV
route-map ADV
match IP address prefix-list ADV
match IP address prefix-list EXT
ip prefix-list ADV permit 172.16.0.0/24
ip prefix-list EXT permit 10.10.10.10/32
D. neighbor x.x.x.x advertise-map ADV exist-map EXT route-map ADV
match IP address prefix-list ADV
route-map EXT
match IP address prefix-list EXT
ip prefix-list EXT permit 172.16.0.0/24
ip prefix-list ADV permit 10.10.10.10/32
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
which two OSPF network type require the use of a DR and BDR?(choose two)
A. broadcast networks
B. point-to-multipoint network
C. point-to-point non-broadcast networks
D. non-broadcast networks
E. point-to-point networks
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which data format is used in this RESET API call?
A. BASH
B. XML
C. HTML
D. HTML v5
E. JSON
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
which three security controls would you take into consideration when implementing IoT capabilities? (choose three)
A. Layered Security Approach
B. Define lifecycle controls for IoT devices
C. Implement Intrusion Detection Systems on IoT devices
D. Privacy impact Assessment
E. Place security above functionality
F. Change passwords every 90 days
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
which two statements about the IS-IS cost metric are true?(choose two)
A. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth and delay
B. It is the only IS-IS metric supported on Cisco devices
C. The cost is calculated automatically based on the delay only
D. The cost is calculated automatically based on the interface bandwidth only
E. A default cost of 1 is automatically assigned to all interface
F. A default cost of 10 is automatically assigned to all interface
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 7
which two configurations must you perform on a router so that you can use SCP to send configuration files to an external server?(choose two)
A. Configure the crypto key encrypt rsa command
B. Configure the ip scp server enable command
C. Configure the login local command under the VTY lines
D. Define a domain-name
E. Configure the ip ssh version 2 command
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two route types are allowed to exit an EIGRPstub?(choose two)
A. summary
B. host
C. static
D. connected
E. default
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(choose two)
A. oSPF
B. bGP
C. DTP
D. telnet
E. ISSU
F. TFTP
400-101 exam Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 10
When you implement the EIGRPadd-paths feature, which configuration can cause routing issues on a DMVPN circuit?
A. disabling the default variance under the EIGRPprocess
B. enable synchronization under the EIGRPprocess
C. disabling ECMP mode under the EIGRPprocess
D. disabling automatic summarization
E. disabling NHRPwhen deploying EIGRPover DMVPN
F. enabling next-hop-self under the EIGRPprocess
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Refer to eh exhibit. You organization has two offices, Site 1 and Site 2, which are connected by a provider backbone, as shown where must you configure an attachment circuit to allow the two sites to connect over a Layer 2 network using L2TPv3?
A. PE Site 1 Se0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
B. PE Site 1 Fe1/0 and PE Site 2 Fe0/0
C. PE Site 1 Fe0/0 and PE Site 2 Se0/0
D. PE Site 1 Fe0/0 and PE Site 2 Fe0/0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
which two statements about route summarization are true?(choose two)
A. When a packet is routed to a destination, the router chooses the most specific prefix from the routing table
B. Routes are automatically summarized to their classful boundary with OSPF
C. BGP sends both specific and aggregate routes unless the keyword “summary-only” is configured
D. It is recommended for use on discontinuous networks
E. EIGRPlearned routes are automatically summarized
400-101 vce Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
Router A(AS 65000)———————-Router C(AS 65005)———————–AS 65010
| |
————————-Router B(AS 65005)——————–
Router C
AS 65010 Path
65005 65010 65010
Local Preference 200
Med 200
Router B
AS 65010 Path
65005 65010
Med 200
Refer to the exhibit.Router A is connected as a BGP neighbor to routers B and C. which path does router A use to get to AS 65010?
A. through router B because it has the shortest AS path
B. through router B because the default local preference is 500 and higher than router C
C. will load balance because both routers have the same Med value
D. through router C because it has a higher local preference
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
which two statements about IP SLA are true?(choose two)
A. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring
B. SNMP access is not supported
C. It can measure MOS
D. It is Layer 2 transport-independent
E. The IP SLA responder is component in the source Cisco device
F. It uses active traffic monitoring
400-101 exam Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 15
When you deploy DMVPN, what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address 0.0.0.0?
A. It configured on hub to set the pre-shared key for the spoke routers
B. It configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core
C. It configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router
D. It configured on hub and spoke router to establish peering
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
which feature can be used to allow hosts with routes in the global routing table to access hosts in a VRF?
A. route target communities
B. address families
C. route leaking
D. extended communities
400-101 dumps Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
From which component does an IS-IS router construct its linke-state database?
A. LSAs
B. LSPs
C. hello packets
D. SPTs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
which two configurations must you apply to the master controller and the border router to provide then (choose two)?
A. Border#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr border
logging
local loopback 0
B. Master#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr master
logging
border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 internal
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 external
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 external
C. Border#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr border
logging
local loopback 0
master 10.1.1.1 key-chain PFR
D. Master#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr master
logging
border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 internal
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 external
E. Master#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr border
logging
local loopback 0
master 10.1.1.1 key-chain PFR
F. Border#
key chain PFR
key 0
key-string Cisco
pfr master
logging
border 10.1.1.3 key-chain PFR
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 internal
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0 external
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 external
400-101 pdf Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 19
how does control plane policing protect the route processor?
A. It treats the route processor as a separate entity within MQC
B. It disables access to the control plane during an attack
C. It dynamically enables ingress ACLs on selected interfaces
D. It marks non-essential traffic and moves it to the Scavenger class
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20

O E2 172.16.20.0/24 [10/20] via 10.32.32.2. 00:01:44, FastEthernet2/1

Refer to the exhibit. which statement about the R3 network environment is true?
A. 172.1.20.0/24 has an administrative distance of 20
B. The administrative distance for 172.16.X.X addresses is 110
C. OSPF external routes are preferred over OSPF internal routes
D. RIP, OSPF and IS-IS are running
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for UDP flows?
A. loss
B. delay
C. reachability
D. throughput
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 22
hosts————————R1———–R2——————R3————Internet
R1
int f0/0
ip add 192.168.12.1 255.255.255.0
router ospf1
nwtwork 192,168.0.0 0.0.255.255
R2
int f0/0
ip add 192.168.12.2 255.255.255.0
router ospf1
nwtwork 192,168.0.0 0.0.255.255
default-information originate
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 F0/1
Refer to the above. You notice that router R2 is experiencing high CPU usage. which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the next-hop address for the R2 default route
B. Configure OSPF on the connection between R2 and the ISP
C. Configure R2 to advertise an area summary route between R2 and R1
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the R2 configuration
400-101 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which two statementsabout MSDP are true?(choose two)
A. It requires multicast receivers to be in the same domain
B. It uses loopback interfaces for anycast RPaddress
C. It requires multicast sources to be in the same domain
D. It uses 32-bit anycast RP address
E. All MSDP domains on a given network can share a common RP
F. It uses UDP to establish peering sessions
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 24
You are using the limited scope multicast IP address 239.128.0.1 for a high volume data distribution application. what symptom would you expect to find in the network?
A. The video traffic cannot be handled by a limited scope multicast address
B. There is no problem and the network is performing smoothly , just as designed
C. The high volume traffic is being sent to the 224.128.0.1 multicast address as well as on the original address, causing high network load on all multicast subnets
D. The high volume application creates high network traffic load on all systems on the subnets where the video is being sent.
400-101 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
which three session tables does NAT64 maintain?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. 6rd
D. 464XLAT
E. ICMP Query
F. SIP
Correct Answer: ABE

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Are you still searching for Cisco 400-051 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (400-051 CCIE Collaboration) exam to plan, design, implement, operate, and troubleshoot enterprise collaboration and communication networks. This 120 minutes exam consists of 90 – 110 questions and covers Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCIE Collaboration certifications. The exam 400-051 dumps pdf CCIE Collaboration certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

CCIE Collaboration
Exam Number: 400-051 CCIE Collaboration
Associated Certifications: CCIE Collaboration
Duration: 120 minutes (90 – 110 questions)
Available Languages: English

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Yes. Our PDF of exam 400-051 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At exam.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 400-051 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-12)

Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
Which four attributes are needed to determine the time to complete a TFTP file transfer process? (Choose four.)
A. file size
B. file type
C. network interface type
D. round-trip time
E. packet loss percentage
F. response timeout
G. network throughput
400-051 exam Answer: A,D,E,F
Explanation:
Four attributes that are needed to determine the time to complete TFTP file transfer
process is:
File Size
Round-trip time
Packet loss percentage
Response timeout

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
Which two statements about using the Load Server option for IP phone firmware distribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. This option must be enabled on at least two servers in a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
B. This option must be enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters for Cisco TFTP.
C. Phone firmware must be manually copied to any applicable load servers.
D. The load server will not function if its IP address is not in the same subnet as the IP phones.
E. This option is only available for newer IP phone models.
F. This option does not accommodate falling back to Cisco TFTP on error.
Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Choosing the Right Distribution Method
Which of the three different image-distribution methods discussed so far is the best for a customer deployment? Each method has advantages and disadvantages, and they are summarized in Table 1.
Table 1. Summary of Distribution Models
Peer Firmware Sharing
Load Server
Traditional TFTP
Advantages
• Hierarchy is automatic
• One download per phone model on a subnet
• Uses TCP
• Fails back to TFTP
• Speeds up LAN upgrades
• Reduces TFTP CPU load during upgrade
• Has same download time as LAN image distribution
• Distributes TFTP load over multiple TFTP servers
• Proven distribution
• Default behavior
Disadvantages
• Must be enabled on each phone
• Hierarchy is formed for each phone model
• Hierarchy is limited to subnet
• IP must be set on each phone
• Administrator must manually file copy to load server
• No failback to TFTP on error
• More prone to user error
• High-bandwidth requirements
• Multiple requests for same file
• High CPU usage on TFTP server

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
Which statement describes a disadvantage of using the Cisco TFTP service to serve IP phone load files?
A. The Cisco TFTP services can run on only one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server in a cluster.
B. Because TFTP operates on top of UDP, there is a high risk of corrupted load file delivery at the completion of the TFTP process due to undetected data loss in the network.
C. If a response is not received in the timeout period, the TFTP server will not resend the data packet.
D. Packet loss can significantly increase the TFTP session completion time.
E. Because TFTP operates with an adaptive timeout period, the time to complete the file transfer is unpredictable.
400-051 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
Voice traffic cannot recapture lost packets. Rather than retransmitting a lost network connection, the phone resets and attempts to reconnect its network connection.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Which capability is supported by Cisco Discovery Protocol but not by LLDP-MED?
A. LAN speed and duplex discovery
B. Network policy discovery
C. Location identification discovery
D. Power discovery
E. Trust extension
Answer: E
Explanation:
Cisco Discovery Protocol provides an additional capability not found in LLDP-MED that allows the switch to extend trust to the phone. In this case, the phone is now trusted to mark the packets received on the PC port accordingly. This feature can be used to off-load the switch because now it does not need to police the information being received from the phone.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
Which statement about Cisco EnergyWise domain member neighbor formation is true?
A. Cisco EnergyWise supports static neighbors, but the neighbor relationship is only possible if a noncontiguous domain member and a contiguous domain member have a static neighbor entry pointing to each other.
B. Cisco EnergyWise static neighbors can be formed even if domain members are not physically contiguous.
C. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but TCP protocols must be used.
D. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members, but they have a lower priority compared to the autodiscovered members.
E. Static neighbors can be manually defined on Cisco EnergyWise domain members and the TCP or UDP protocol can be used.
400-051 pdf Answer: B
Reference:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Which statement about the Cisco UC on UCS TRC and the third-party server specs-based virtualization support model is true?
A. Both the UC on UCS TRC and the third-party servers spec-based support models have rule-based approaches.
B. The UC on UCS TRC support model has a rule-based approach and the third-party servers spec-based support model has a configuration-based approach.
C. The UC on UCS TRC support model requires a high level of virtualization experience while the third-party server spec-based support model requires a low to medium level virtualization experience.
D. VMware vCenter is mandatory for the UC on UCS TRC support model but it is optional for the third-party server spec-based support model.
E. VMware vCenter is optional for the UC on UCS TRC support model but it is mandatory for the third-party server spec-based support model.
Answer: E
Explanation:
VMware vCenter is optional when deploying on UC on UCS Tested Reference Configuration hardware mandatory when deploying on UC on UCS Specs-based and Third-party Server Specs-based hardware. vCenter Statistics Level 4 logging is mandatory so that Cisco TAC is able to provide effective support. Click here for how to configure VMware vCenter to capture these logs. If not configured by default, Cisco TAC may request enabling these settings in order to provide effective support. Also note that enablement of specific VMware vSphere management features may require vCenter and/or a higher feature Edition of vSphere ESXi. Cisco Collaboration does not require its own dedicated vCenter. Note that when VMware vCenter is not required and is not used, then VMware vSphere ESXi’s default management interface is its free/included VMware vSphere Client (formerly branded VI Client).

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
Refer to the exhibit.
400-051 dumps
Assuming that the administrator has never performed any manual custom uploads, which two file types can be found when you choose Software Upgrades, followed by TFTP File Management on the Cisco Unified Operating System Administration web page for Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. IP phone configuration files
B. announcement audio files
C. ringer files
D. IP phone license files
E. sample music-on-hold audio files
F. softkey template files
400-051 vce Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The two file types that we get are Announcement Audio Files and Ringer Files.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Which protocol does the Cisco Prime LAN Management Solution application use to communicate with Cisco EnergyWise domain members?
A. UDP broadcast
B. Cisco Discovery Protocol
C. UDP unicast
D. TCP
E. multicast
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cisco Prime LMS 4.1 uses TCP port 43440.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two statements about the Cisco UC on UCS specs-based virtualization support model are true? (Choose two.)
A. It has a configuration-based approach.
B. It has a rule-based approach.
C. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the third-party server specs-based support model.
D. It has less hardware flexibility compared to the UC on UCS TRC support model.
E. VMware vCenter is optional with this support model.
400-051 exam Answer: B,C
Reference:

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
What is the maximum number of call-processing subscribers in a standard deployment of a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition cluster?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 8
E. 16
Answer: D
Explanation:
There is no deployment difference between CUCM & CUCM session management Edition cluster. The only difference is that CUCM SME is designed to support a large number of trunk to trunk connections. Thus, 8 subscribers.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
Which two statements about the Peer Firmware Sharing option for IP phone firmware distribution are true? (Choose two.)
A. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy in which a firmware image is downloaded by a parent phone to up to three directly associated child phones.
B. This option must be enabled on Cisco Unified Communications Manager service parameters for Cisco TFTP.
C. This option mandates that the parent phone and child phones be identical, selected phone models.
D. This option allows firmware transfers between phones in different subnets, as long as the round-trip delay is less than 5 milliseconds.
E. This option uses a parent-child hierarchy that must be manually defined by the Cisco Unified Communications Manager administrator.
F. This option allows falling back to the TFTP server in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
400-051 dumps Answer: C,F
Explanation:
Peer Firmware Sharing works by setting up a parent-child hierarchy of the phones in which a firmware image is downloaded by the parent phone to a child phone. The advantage of using Peer Firmware Sharing is that instead of all phones individually retrieving a software image, they pass the image along from one phone to another phone on the same subnet. Advantage of PFS:
Hierarchy is automatic One download per phone model on a subnet

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which two mechanisms does Cisco EnergyWise use for neighbor discovery? (Choose two.)
A. multicast
B. LLDP-MED
C. UDP broadcast
D. Cisco Discovery Protocol
E. TCP
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Cisco EnergyWise Neighbor Discovery Process
The Cisco EnergyWise neighbor discovery process is the mechanism by which domain members discover each other and populate their Cisco EnergyWise neighbor tables. Cisco EnergyWise queries can subsequently be distributed to all domain members using the neighbor relationships to monitor and control the power usage of devices within a domain. Cisco EnergyWise domain members automatically discover their neighbors through one of two mechanisms:
Cisco EnergyWise UDP broadcast packet
Cisco EnergyWise CDP packets
UDP broadcast packets are automatically sent out switch ports which support Cisco EnergyWise, regardless of whether the interfaces are configured with the no energywise interface-level command. CDP packets are sent when CDP is configured for the switch ports.

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2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-341 Dumps Version: Candidates for this exam are senior administrators who act as the technical lead over a team of administrators. Candidates serve as a third level of support between the Exchange Recipient Administrator and the Exchange Server Administrator. Candidates should have a minimum of three years of experience managing Exchange servers and Exchange messaging in an enterprise environment.
QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers. You need to ensure that an administrator named user1 receives a daily email message that contains a log of all the Exchange Server administrative actions. Which cmdlet should you use in a scheduled task?
A. Search-AdminAuditLog
B. Set-Mailbox
C. New-AdminAuditLogSearch
D. Set-ExchangeServer
E. Set-AdminAuditLogConfig
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 270-341 dumps
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named Contoso. The organization contains a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed. Server1 has the Mailbox server role and the Client Access server role installed. Server1 has a Send connector for a partner company. The Send connector is configured for Domain Security with a domain named adatum.com.
The only certificate installed on Server1 expires. You discover that all email messages sent to adatum.com remain in the queue on Server1. On Server1, you install a new certificate from a trusted third-party. You need to ensure that the email messages are delivered to adatum.com. What should you do?
A. Assign the new certificate to the IIS service.
B. Send the new certificate to the administrator at adatum.com.
C. Assign the new certificate to the SMTP service.
D. Create a new send connector that contains an address space to adatum.com.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A user fails to connect to his mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. The user successfully connects to the mailbox by using an Exchange ActiveSync-enabled mobile device and Outlook Web App. You need to identify what prevents the users from connecting to the mailbox by using Outlook Anywhere. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Outlook
B. Microsoft Exchange Server Deployment Assistant
C. Microsoft Exchange RPC Extractor
D. Microsoft Exchange Server Profile Analyzer
E. Microsoft Exchange Server User Monitor
F. Microsoft Exchange Load Generator
G. Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer
H. Exchange Server MAPI Editor
Correct Answer: G

2018 New Pass4isture Microsoft 70-410 Dumps Version: This exam is part one of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to implement a core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services, such as Active Directory and the networking services. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining, and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.
QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computer accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers. Client computers run either windows 7 or Windows 8.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1.
You link GP1 to the AllComputers OU.
You need to ensure that GP1 applies only to computers that have more than 8 GB of memory. What should you configure?
A. The Security settings of GP1
B. The Block Inheritance option for AllComputers
C. The Security settings of AllComputers
D. The WMI filter for GP1
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) filters allow you to dynamically determine the scope of Group Policy objects (GPOs) based on attributes of the target computer. When a GPO that is linked to a WMI filter is applied on the target computer, the filter is evaluated on the target computer. If the WMI filter evaluates to false, the GPO is not applied (except if the client computer is running Windows Server, in which case the filter is ignored and the GPO is always applied).If the WMI filter evaluates to true, the GPO is applied.
References: Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 R2: Chapter 10: Implementing Group Policy, p.470, 482

QUESTION 270-410 dumps
Your network contains multiple subnets. On one of the subnets, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You install the DNS Server server role on Server1, and then you create a standard primary zone named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that client computers can resolve single-label names to IP addresses. What should you do first?
A. Create a reverse lookup zone.
B. Convert the contoso.com zone to an Active Directory-integrated zone.
C. Create a GlobalNames zone.
D. Configure dynamic updates for contoso.com.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You should use GlobalNames zone to take advantage of single-label names. This will also ensure that the zone remains valid.
References:

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The DNS zone for contoso.com is Active-Directory integrated. The domain contains 500 client computers. There are an additional 20 computers in a workgroup. You discover that every client computer on the network can add its record to the contoso.com zone. You need to ensure that only the client computers in the Active Directory domain can register records in the contoso.com zone. What should you do?
A. Sign the contoso.com zone by using DNSSEC.
B. Configure the Dynamic updates settings of the contoso.com zone.
C. Configure the Security settings of the contoso.com zone.
D. Move the contoso.com zone to a domain controller that is configured as a DNS server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

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[New Dumps] Discount Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam CCNA Collaboration Answers Youtube Online (Question 1 – Question 27) https://www.itcertlab.com/discount-cisco-210-060-dumps.html Mon, 23 Apr 2018 07:36:08 +0000 https://www.itcertlab.com/?p=1081 Are you still searching for Cisco 210-060 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (210-060 CICD […]

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Are you still searching for Cisco 210-060 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 (210-060 CICD ) exam tests Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco UC solutions maintenance. This 75-minute exam consists of 55-65 questions and covers Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCNA Collaboration certifications. The exam 210-060 dumps download CICD certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices
Exam Number: 210-060 CICD
Associated Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Duration: 75 Minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

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Yes. Our PDF of exam 210-060 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At exam.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

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exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 210-060 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-27)

QUESTION 1
The Voice engineer in your company need to change IP address destination on SIP-Trunk on near side?
A. reset trunk on near side
B. reset trunk on far side
C. reset trunk on far and near side
D. restart call manager service
210-060 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 2
What is the recommended maximum one-way latency for voice and video networks?
A. 100 ms
B. 150 ms
C. 200 ms
D. 300 ms
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 3
An end user has an 7945 IP phone, but is unable to launch any of the IP phone applications. A network engineer has confirmed that the device is subscribed to the appropriate applications in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. How should the engineer instruct the user to launch the IP phone applications?
A. Select the “?” button on the IP phone.
B. Select the globe button on the IP phone.
C. Select Settings > User Preferences.
D. Select Settings > Device Configuration.
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060 dumps
210-060 dumps
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The dial 9, 910, and 9001 dial peer configurations are shown below:
210-060 dumps

Here we see that dial peer 9 and 910 match the same destination pattern, but 9 will be used first. However, the port used should be 0/0/0:15 not 0/0/0:12.
210-060 dumps

QUESTION 5
An engineer receives a service ticket because a user cannot log into Cisco Unified CM User Options. Where can the engineer verify that the user account is active?
A. LDAP System Configuration
B. LDAP Directory
C. End User Configuration
D. LDAP Authentication
E. Route Plan Report
210-060 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
A user reports that several IP phones in a single department are displaying a continuous “registering” message. Which fault domain should be investigated?
A. network router
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber node
C. network switch
D. IP phones
E. SIP gateway
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 7
User A notices echo on a call with user B. Both users are using Cisco VoIP phones. User B is using a headset, and user A is using a handset. What is the most likely source of the echo?
A. user A handset
B. user B headset
C. disabled echo cancellation on user A phone profile
D. disabled echo cancellation on user B phone profile
210-060 exam Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 8
What is needed to support SIP Early Media?
A. Media Termination Point
B. Transcoder
C. Annunciator
D. Conference Bridge
E. DSP
F. Route List
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 9
Which three characteristics are associated with voice? (Choose three.)
A. greedy
B. TCP retransmits
C. UDP priority
D. delay sensitive
E. drop insensitive
F. benign
G. benign or greedy
210-060  dumps Correct Answer: CDF
Explanation

QUESTION 10
With GETVPN, if a key server is configured to use multicast as the rekey transport mechanism, then under which of these conditions will the key server retransmit the rekey messages?
A. It never retransmit the rekey messages
B. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from at least one group member
C. it only retransmit the rekey message when it does not receive the rekey acknowledgment from all group member
D. it only retransmit the rekey message when DPD to the group members fails
E. it always retransmit the rekey message
Correct Answer: E
Explanation

QUESTION 11
In an effort to proactively manage IP telephony infrastructure, a network engineer wants to review usage reports that provide top five users, top five calls, and traffic summary. Which option describes where this information can be retrieved using Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Navigate to Cisco Unified CM Administration > CDR Analysis and Reporting >System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
B. Navigate to Cisco Unified Operating System Administration > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
C. Navigate to Cisco Unified Serviceability > Tools > CDR Analysis and Reporting > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
D. Navigate to Cisco Unified Reporting > Tools > System Reports > System Overview > Select desired reports.
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
After getting reports that users cannot make calls out to the PSTN, a network administrator opens the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page and begins to review route patterns. Why would the administrator look here when troubleshooting PSTN connectivity troubles?
A. A route pattern contains a list of gateways that can reach the PSTN.
B. A route pattern contains dial plan information for calling the PSTN.
C. A route pattern contains the necessary privileges for calling the PSTN.
D. A route pattern contains a list of SIP trunks that can reach the PSTN.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
An engineer is adding a third-party video endpoint to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which third-party device type should be used when adding the system?
A. SCCP
B. SIP
C. MGCP
D. H.323
210-060 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator determine which codec is being used between two endpoints while a call is in progress?
A. Run the codec trace in Cisco Unified Communication Manager.
B. Use Cisco Unified Serviceability network trace.
C. Can only be seen in Cisco SDI traces.
D. Can only be seen in a sniffer trace.
E. Press the ? button twice on one of the IP phones.
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: pressing the button (?) twice in quick succession during an active call.

QUESTION 15
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
210-060 exam Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which type of data file is used for bulk import of users into Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xls
B. .doc
C. .csv
D. .pdf
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
To control telephony costs, management wants to restrict who can place long distance calls. Which two options allow for this restriction? (Choose two.)
A. calling search space
B. partitions
C. route groups
D. SIP trunk
E. gateway
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: AB
Explanation

QUESTION 18
An end user reports that conference calls are failing. Which fault domain should be investigated first?
A. IP phone
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Media Resources
C. voice gateways
D. network routers and switches
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 19
Which two tools can be used to measure the quality of a VoIP call? (Choose two.)
A. QoS configuration tool
B. mean opinion score tool
C. bulk administration tool
D. jitter compensation tool
E. rFactor tool
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: BE
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. Bulk administration tool
B. LDAP
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL
D. Outlook
E. Presence
F. Cisco Compatible Extensions
Correct Answer: ABC
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager device report provides key information to determine if an additional gateway is needed?
A. Gateway utilization
B. Gateway summary
C. Gateway detail
D. Gateway and line group utilization
210-060 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Which three choices are functions or features of Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)
A. video-enabled messaging through converged networks
B. text-to-speech, which allows access to Exchange emails from a telephone
C. voice-enabled message navigation
D. voice-enabled dialing to external users
E. automated attendant capabilities
F. automated call rerouting to agents through round robin, longest idle, or broadcast
Correct Answer: BCE
Explanation

QUESTION 23
A network engineer must set up an end-user account for a SIP device to use for authentication. Which end-user information is used for SIP authentication?
A. account ID
B. password
C. PIN
D. digest credentials
210-060 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 24
An engineer is configuring the Cisco Unified Communications Manager disaster recovery system. Which three statements about the disaster recovery system are true? (Choose three.)
A. It requires the use of schedules for backups.
B. Backup files are encrypted using the cluster security password.
C. If the backup device is listed in a backup schedule, it cannot be manually deleted.
D. If the backup does not complete within 40 hours, the backup times out.
E. Archiving backups to tape drives is supported.
F. SSL is used between the master and local agents.
Correct Answer: BCF
Explanation

QUESTION 25
Which option is added number phone configuration is Cisco Unified Communicator Manager to add conference bridge resource to the phone
A. Media Resource Group
B. Conference Resource list
C. Conference Bridge
D. Media Resource Group List
210-060 dumps Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 26
End user is on a cisco telepresence session with remote participant and can control the camera at the remote endpoint. Which feature is underlying?
A. FECC
B. DTMF
C. FEC
D. PIP
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 27
A voice engineer has installed an XML-based phone application from a third party and subscribed a user’s 7945 IP phone to the application. Which action does the user take to launch the new service on the IP phone?
A. Select the Applications button on the 7945 IP phone.
B. Select Settings > Applications.
C. Select Settings > Network > Applications.
D. Select the Services button on the 7945 IP phone.
210-060 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation

Cisco 210-060 Dumps Recommended Training

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD) v1.0 – E-learning
  • Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices (CICD) – Instructor-led training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

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The 210-060 (CICD) Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 exam is a 75-minute, 55-65 question assessment that is associated with the CCNA Collaboration certification. This exam 210-060 dumps exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Cisco Unified Communications (UC) solutions. A candidate is tested on knowledge of administrator and end-user interfaces, telephony and mobility features, and Cisco UC solutions maintenance. A candidate is tested on knowledge of Implementing Cisco Collaboration Devices v1.0 course maintenance.

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[New Dumps] Download Latest Cisco 200-355 Dumps Answers Are Based On The Real CCNA Wireless Exam Video Training (Question 1 – Question 37) https://www.itcertlab.com/latest-cisco-200-355-dumps.html Mon, 23 Apr 2018 07:09:20 +0000 https://www.itcertlab.com/?p=1076 Are you still searching for Cisco 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) […]

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Are you still searching for Cisco 200-355 dumps exam? The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355 WIFUND) exam tests Radio Frequency (RF) and 802.11 technology essentials along with installing, configuring, monitoring and basic troubleshooting tasks needed to support Small Medium Business and Enterprise wireless networks. This 90-minute exam consists of 60-70 questions and covers Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCNA Wireless certifications. The exam 200-355 dumps pdfWIFUND certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Exam Number: 200-355
Associated Certifications: CCNA Wireless
Duration: 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages: English, Japanese

Do you maintain 100% Guarantee on exam.com products?

Yes. Our PDF of exam 200-355 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At exam.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-37)

QUESTION 1
What is max power for an AP for all regulatory bodies?
A. 10
B. 8
C. 1
D. X
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
How Cisco spectrum analyzer analyse the scanned data?
A. Store scanned data during wifi scan and analyze later.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is the deployment that requires least amount of hardware installed on the site?
A. Cloud
B. Converged
C. Centralized
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What command can be used on the WLC to show the logs (or something) for an AP with the name Cisco_AP?
A. show logging
B. show ap eventlog Cisco_AP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the command used to debug an AP that is not able to join the WLC?
A. debug capwap events enable (on the WLC)
B. debug capwap events enable (on the AP)
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What are the channels you need to avoid not to have interference with DFS channels? (Choose 3)
A. 52
B. 136
C. 124
D. 161
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
What is required from the deployment when using voice or video applications? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI cell edge of -25
B. RSSI cell edge of -16
C. SNR of 25
D. Cell Overlap of 20%
E. RSSI -67
200-355 vce Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 8
What are the sources of interference you will find when conducting a site survery before deployment? (Choose 3)
A. Bluetooth Headset
B. Microwave Ovens
C. Analog Wireless Camera
D. AdHoc Wireless Camera
E. AdHoc Hotspot
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
What are reqs for VoWLAN?
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% overlapping cells
200-355 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What is SNR needed for 54 Mbps?
A. SNR 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is max level in Cisco WLC TPC for all regulatory domain?
A. 1
B. 8
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Engineer needs an LAP to support few WLANs with different DHCP servers for different SSIDs, how to fulfill this requirement?
A. configuring dynamic VLAN interfacesto SSIDs in AP group.
B. configure DHCP in AP settings advanced page
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which wireless survey you do considering the “infrastructure” in the building?
A. Passive
B. Active
C. Planning
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
What are the minimum requirements to operate cisco 7925 wireless phone? (Choose 3)
A. RSSI -67
B. SNR 25
C. 20% cell overlapping
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
Which WLC menu you use the check the assigned power level of an AP?
A. Wireless
B. Management
C. Controller
D. Monitor.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
How much wireless cell overlapping is required for 5GHz voice and data roaming?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command you use in WLC to update the running IOS?
A. TFTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum power level for AP in any regularity domain?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How much SNR needed to reach 54Mbps in 802.11g network?
A. 25
B. 10
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What three authentication methods are generally used in enterprise wireless networks? (Choose three.)
A. AES
B. CCKM
C. EAP-FAST
D. EAP-TLS
E. PEAP
F. WEP
Correct Answer: CDE

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command shows the controller configuration in a way that is similar to the way that it is displayed on Cisco IOS routers?
A. show config
B. show run config
C. show run-config
D. show running config
E. show running-config
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 22
Which four parameters need to be configured for local EAP-FAST on the controller? (Choose four.)
A. Authority ID
B. Authority ID Information
C. Client Key
D. PAC
E. Server Key
F. TTL for PAC
G. Monitor Key
H. NTP Source
Correct Answer: ABEF

QUESTION 23
Which CLI command would you use on the Cisco WLC to display detailed information for a client associated with a lightweight access point?
A. debug dot11
B. show arp switch
C. show client detailed
D. show exclusionlist
200-355 vce Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which statement applies to TKIP?
A. is part of the initial key exchange used to derive a pairwise temporal key
B. is used to encrypt a WEP authenticated session
C. is used to encrypt the data for WPA sessions
D. is used to secure the initial authentication credential exchange between client and authenticator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute rule state is the 2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?
A. 16 dBm
B. 17 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 30 dBm
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
How do the features that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to 750 wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LAN controllers.
B. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS for Linux does not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
C. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which modulation technique allows you to achieve a data rate of 54Mb/s in the 2.4GHz-band?
A. Complimentary Code Keying
B. Differential Binary Phase Shift Keying
C. Differential Quadrature Phase Shift Keying
D. Quadrature Amplitude Modulation
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
What is the result when client exclusion is enabled with a timeout value of zero?
A. Clients are excluded indefinitely.
B. Clients are never excluded.
C. Client exclusion is disabled.
D. Clients must be explicitly included by specifying the MAC address.
E. Exclusion and inclusion is determined by access list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address using DHCP. The AP has confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. What is the next step the AP performs?
A. DHCP option 43.
B. DNS resolution of CISCO-LWAPP-CONTROLLER.localdomain.
C. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
D. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast.
E. Ping each Cisco WLC to verify its current status.
F. Select a Cisco WLC based on its position in the configured join selection sequence.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which AP to Wireless LAN Controller discovery process requires a previous association of the AP with a Cisco WLC?
A. AP priming
B. defining a master controller
C. DHCP Option 6
D. DHCP Option 43
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
What unit of measurement is used to represent the strength of an antenna’s radiation pattern?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. GHz
200-355 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which physical layer encoding technology is common to both the IEEE 802.11g and the IEEE 802.11a standards?
A. BPSK
B. CCK
C. DSSS
D. OFDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Which set of commands assigns a standalone access point an IP address of 10.0.0.24 with a 27-bit subnet mask and a gateway of 10.0.0.1?
A. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
B. config t
interface BVI1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
C. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
D. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.224
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
E. config t
interface FastEthernet1
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
F. config t
interface Dot11Radio0
ip address 10.0.0.24 255.255.255.192
exit
ip default-gateway 10.0.0.1
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
A controller-based wireless solution can avoid interference by dynamically adjusting, what two access point transmission characteristics? (Choose two.)
A. operating RF channel
B. SSID names
C. transmit power levels
D. switch port parameters
E. antenna gain
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 35
Effective Isotropic Radiated Power is calculated by using which three values? (Choose three.)
A. antenna bandwidth
B. antenna gain
C. cable loss
D. receiver sensitivity
E. SSID
F. transmission power
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 36
Which statement best represents the authorization aspect of AAA?
A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources.
B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client.
C. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication phase.
D. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless communications between client and AP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
What increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data in subcarriers?
A. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum
B. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum
C. Narrow Band Frequency
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: D

Cisco 200-355 Dumps Recommended Training

The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0
  • Defining Cisco Wireless LAN Essentials (WLE) v1.1
  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0 – Instructor led training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you.

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The 200-355 (WIFUND) Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals exam is a 90-minute, 60-70 question assessment that is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification. This exam 200-355 dumps exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Radio Frequency (RF) and 802.11 technology essentials along with installing, configuring, monitoring and basic troubleshooting tasks needed to support Small Medium Business and Enterprise wireless networks. A candidate is tested on knowledge of Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals course maintenance.
200-310 dumps
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Do You Want to Pass Your Real Cisco DESGN 200-310 Dumps https://www.itcertlab.com/real-cisco-desgn-200-310-dumps.html Mon, 23 Apr 2018 06:41:41 +0000 https://www.itcertlab.com/?p=1024 Are you still searching for Cisco 200-310 dumps exam? The Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (200-310 DESGN) […]

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Are you still searching for Cisco 200-310 dumps exam? The Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (200-310 DESGN) exam tests network design for Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks. This 75-minute exam consists of 55-65 questions and covers Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the CCDA certifications.The exam 200-310 dumps DESGN certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Number: 200-310
Associated Certifications: CCDA
Duration: 75 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available Languages: English

Do you maintain 100% Guarantee on exam.com products?

Yes. Our PDF of exam 200-310 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At exam.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

exam Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-310 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-21)

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 exam Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Classification is the process of partitioning traffic into multiple priority levels or classes of service. Information in the frame or packet header is inspected, and the frame’s priority is determined. Marking is the process of changing the priority or class of service (CoS) setting within a frame or packet to indicate its classification. Classification is usually performed with access control lists (ACL), QoS class maps, or route maps, using various match criteria.
Congestion-avoidance techniques monitor network traffic loads so that congestion can be anticipated and avoided before it becomes problematic. Congestion-avoidance techniques allow packets from streams identified as being eligible for early discard (those with lower priority) to be dropped when the queue is getting full. Congestion avoidance techniques provide preferential treatment for high priority traffic under congestion situations while
maximizing network throughput and capacity utilization and minimizing packet loss and delay. Weighted random early detection (WRED) is the Cisco implementation of the random early detection (RED) mechanism. WRED extends RED by
using the IP Precedence bits in the IP packet header to determine which traffic should be dropped; the drop-selection process is weighted by the IP precedence. Traffic conditioner consists of policing and shaping. Policing either discards the packet or modifies some aspect of it, such as its IP Precedence or CoS bits, when the policing agent determines that the packet meets a given criterion. In comparison, traffic shaping attempts to adjust the transmission rate of packets that match a certain criterion. Shaper typically delays excess traffic by using a buffer or queuing mechanism to hold packets and shape the flow when the source’s data rate is higher than expected. For example, generic traffic shaping uses a weighted fair queue to delay packets to shape
the flow. Traffic conditioner is also referred to as Committed Access Rate (CAR). Congestion management includes two separate processes: queuing, which separates traffic into various queues or buffers, and scheduling, which decides from which queue traffic is to be sent next. There are two types of queues: the hardware queue (also called the transmit queue or TxQ) and
software queues. Software queues schedule packets into the hardware queue based on the QoS requirements and include the following types: weighted fair queuing (WFQ), priority queuing (PQ), custom queuing (CQ), class-based WFQ (CBWFQ), and low latency queuing (LLQ). LLQ is also known as Priority Queuing–Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (PQ-CBWFQ). LLQ provides a single priority but it’s preferred for VoIP networks because it can also configure guaranteed bandwidth for different classes of traffic queue. For example, all voice call traffic would be assigned to the priority queue, VoIP signaling and video would be assigned to a traffic class, FTP traffic would be assigned to a low-priority traffic class, and all other traffic would be assigned to a regular class.
Link efficiency techniques, including link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) and compression. LFI prevents small voice packets from being queued behind large data packets, which could lead to unacceptable delays on low-speed links. With LFI, the voice gateway fragments large packets into smaller equal-sized frames and interleaves them with small voice packets so that a voice packet does not have to wait until the entire large data packet is sent. LFI reduces and ensures a more predictable voice delay.

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trust and identity management solutions provide secure network access and admission at any point in the network and isolate and control infected or unpatched devices that attempt to access the network. If you are trusted, you are granted access. We can understand “trust” is the security policy applied on two or more network entities and allows them to communicate or not in a specific circumstance. “Identity” is the “who” of a trust relationship.
The main purpose of Secure Connectivity is to protect the integrity and privacy of the information and it is mostly done by encryption and authentication. The purpose of encryption is to guarantee confidentiality; only authorized entities can encrypt and decrypt data. Authentication is used to establish the subject’s identity. For example, the users are required to provide username and password to access a resource…

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 dumps Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
DRAG and DROP
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Drag the WAN characteristics on the left to the branch office model where it would most likely to be used on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 pdf Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
The first phase of PPDIOO entails identifying customer requirements. Drag the example on the left to the associated requirement on the right
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Drag the description or characteristic on the left to the appropriate technology or protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Click and drag the phases of the PPDIOO network lifecycle approach on the left to their order on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
Drag the characteristics of the traditional campus network on the left to the most appropriate hierarchical network layer on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 exam Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
Drag the network function on the left to the functional area or module where it is most likely to be performed in the enterprise campus infrastructure on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
Drag the security prevision on the left to the appropriate Network module on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 dumps Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Drag the technology on the left to the type of enterprise virtualization where it is most likely to be found on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Drag the network characteristic on the left to the design method on the right which will best ensure redundancy at the building distribution layer.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 pdf Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Drag the associated virtualization tool or solution on the left to the appropriate design requirement on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
Drag the WAN technology on the left to the most appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 exam Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
Drag the STP toolkit term on the left to the definition on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

QUESTION 17
Drag the characteristic on the left to the correct campus design model on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 dumps Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Drag the technology on the left to the matching routing protocol on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Drag the security term on the left to the matching description on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 pdf Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
Drag the term on the left to the matching deployment scenario on the right.
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Drag and drop the top-down approach process step 1 – 4 !
Select and Place:
200-310 dumps
200-310 exam Correct Answer:
200-310 dumps

Cisco 200-310 Dumps Recommended Training

The following course is the recommended training for this exam.

  • Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions (DESGN) v3.0

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Check the List of Learning Partners for a Cisco Learning Partner nearest you

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The 200-310 (DESGN) Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions exam is a 75-minute, 55-65 question assessment that is associated with the CCDA certification. This exam 200-310 dumps exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of network design for Cisco enterprise network architectures. CCDA certified professionals can design routed and switched network infrastructures and services involving LAN/WAN technologies for SMB or basic enterprise campus and branch networks. A candidate is tested on knowledge of Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions course maintenance.
200-310 dumps
In the recent few years, exam Cisco 200-310 dumps exam certification have caused great impact to many people. Because exam exam dumps contain all questions you can encounter in the actual exam, all you need to do is to memorize these questions and answers which can help you 100% pass the exam. This is the royal road to pass 200-310 dumps exam.

Cisco 200-310 dumps pdf training tool has strong pertinence, which can help you save a lot of valuable time and energy to pass IT certification exam. Our exercises and answers and are very close true examination questions. IN a short time of using exam 200-310 dumps pdf simulation test, you can 100% pass the exam.

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[New Dumps] Latest Release Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Certification Material Provider With The Youtube Knowledge And Skills (Question 34 – Question 49) https://www.itcertlab.com/latest-release-microsoft-070-461-dumps.html Fri, 30 Mar 2018 09:32:36 +0000 https://www.itcertlab.com/?p=999 Are you still searching for Microsoft 070-461 dumps exam cheats? exam Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Guide Provider, Sale Latest […]

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Are you still searching for Microsoft 070-461 dumps exam cheats? exam Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Guide Provider, Sale Latest Release Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Certification Material Provider With The Knowledge And Skills, We Help You Pass Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 – exam 070-461 dumps: https://www.exam.com/070-461.html (164 Questions)

The Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 (070-461 SQL Server) exam tests a network security engineer on SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries. Through the feedback of many examinees who have used exam’s training program to pass some IT certification exams, it proves that using exam’s products to pass IT certification exams is very easy. This exam consists of 164 questions and covers Querying Microsoft SQL Server 2012 course. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking it for the Microsoft MCP, MCSA, MCSE certifications.The 070-461 dumps exam certifies the switching knowledge and skills of successful candidates.

Exam 070-461 Microsoft SQL Server
Published: June 11, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE

Do you maintain 100% Guarantee on exam.com products?

Yes. Our PDF of 070-461 dumps exam is designed to ensure everything which you need to pass your exam successfully. At exam.com, we have a completely customer oriented policy. We invite the rich experience and expert knowledge of professionals from the IT certification industry to guarantee the PDF details precisely and logically. Our customers’ time is a precious concern for us. This requires us to provide you the products that can be utilized most efficiently.

Do you offer free after-sale services?

Yes. We provide 7/24 customer help and information on a wide range of issues. Our service is professional and confidential and your issues will be replied within 12 hous. Feel free to send us any questions and we always try our best to keeping our Customers Satisfied.

exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 070-461 Dumps Exam Q&As(34-49)

Question No : 34
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a table named Employee. Part of the Employee table is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
070-461 dumps
Unless stated above, no columns in the Employee table reference other tables. Confidential information about the employees is stored in a separate table named EmployeeData. One record exists within EmployeeData for each record in the Employee
table. You need to assign the appropriate constraints and table properties to ensure data integrity and visibility. On which column in the Employee table should you use an identity specification to include a seed of 1,000 and an increment of 1?
A. DateHired
B. DepartmentID
C. EmployeeID
D. EmployeeNum
E. FirstName
F. JobTitle
G. LastName
H. MiddleName
I. ReportsToID
070-461 exam Answer: C

Question No : 35
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that includes a table named Products. The Products table has columns named Productld, ProductName, and CreatedDateTime. The table contains a unique constraint on the combination of ProductName and CreatedDateTime. You need to modify the Products table to meet the following requirements: Remove all duplicates of the Products table based on the ProductName column. Retain only the newest Products row. Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
B. ProductName = cte.ProductName
AND p.CreatedDateTime > cte.CreatedDateTime
C. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
cte.ProductName = p.ProductName
AND cte.CreatedDateTime > p.CreatedDateTime
D. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MIN(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
E. ProductName = cte.ProductName
F. WITH CTEDupRecords
AS
(
SELECT MAX(CreatedDateTime) AS CreatedDateTime, ProductName
FROM Products
GROUP BY ProductName
HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
)
DELETE p
FROM Products p
JOIN CTEDupRecords cte ON
G. ProductName = cte.ProductName
Answer: B

Question No : 36
You develop three Microsoft SQL Server 2012 databases named Database1, Database2, and Database3. You have permissions on both Database1 and Database2. You plan to write and deploy a
stored procedure named dbo.usp_InsertEvent in Database3. dbo.usp_InsertEvent must execute other stored procedures in the other databases. You need to ensure that callers that do not have permissions on Database1 or Database2 can execute the stored procedure. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?
A. USE Database2
B. EXECUTE AS OWNER
C. USE Database1
D. EXECUTE AS CALLER
070-461 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 37
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database that has multiple tables in the Sales schema. Some users must be prevented from deleting records in any of the tables in the
Sales schema. You need to manage users who are prevented from deleting records in the Sales schema. You need to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What
should you do?
A. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on the Sales schema for the custom database role.
B. Include the Sales schema as an owned schema for the db_denydatawriter role. Add the users to the db_denydatawriter role.
C. Deny Delete permissions on each table in the Sales schema for each user.
D. Create a custom database role that includes the users. Deny Delete permissions on
each table in the Sales schema for the custom database role.
Answer: A

Question No : 38
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 database. The database contains a Product table created by using the following definition:
070-461 dumps
You need to ensure that the minimum amount of disk space is used to store the data in the Product table.
What should you do?
A. Convert all indexes to Column Store indexes.
B. Implement Unicode Compression.
C. Implement row-level compression.
D. Implement page-level compression.
070-461 pdf Answer: D

Question No : 39
You generate a daily report according to the following query:
070-461 dumps
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
WITH cte(CustomerID, LastOrderDate) AS (
SELECT CustomerID, MAX(OrderDate) AS [LastOrderDate]
FROM Sales.SalesOrder
GROUP BY CustomerID
)
SELECT c.CustomerName
FROM cte
INNER JOIN Sales.Customer c
ON cte.CustomerID = c.CustomerID
WHERE cte.LastOrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) B. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows: SELECT c.CustomerName FROM Sales.Customer c WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT s.OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder WHERE s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE())
AND s.CustomerID = c.CustomerID)
C. Drop the UDF and rewrite the report query as follows:
SELECT DISTINCT c.CustomerName
FROM Sales.Customer c
INNER JOIN Sales.SalesOrder s
ON c.CustomerID = s.CustomerID
WHERE s.OrderDate < DATEADD(DAY, -90, GETDATE()) D. Rewrite the report query as follows: SELECT c.CustomerName FROM Sales.Customer c WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(c.CustomerID, 90)) Rewrite the UDF as follows: CREATE FUNCTION Sales.ufnGetRecentOrders(@CustomerID int, @MaxAge datetime) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT OrderDate FROM Sales.SalesOrder WHERE s.CustomerID = @CustomerID AND s.OrderDate > DATEADD(DAY, -@MaxAge, GETDATE())
Answer: A

Question No : 40 How can IP Video Conferencing reduce your carbon footprint?
A. It reduces the power consumed during meetings.
B. It reduces the paperwork needed for meetings.
C. It reduces the number of rooms needed for meetings.
D. It reduces the travel needed to attend meetings.
070-461 vce Answer: D

Question No : 41 You are monitoring energy usage in the Data Centre. What is the role of thermal profiling.
A. To identify hot spots and overcooling.
B. To identify which servers are performing efficiently.
C. To identify the timing of energy consumption peaks.
D. To identify which applications require the most energy.
Answer: A

Question No : 42. Which of the following uses Greenhouse Gas conversion factors to work out CO2 emissions?
A. The ROCI Matrix.
B. The Emissions Reduction Flowchart.
C. The Carbon Footprint Calculator.
D. The Electronic Product Environmental Assessment Tool.
070-461 exam Answer: C

Question No : 43 Which of the following is a stakeholder in a Green IT programme?
a.Government organisations.
b.Suppliers.
c.Company shareholders.
d.Employees. e.Religious organisations.
A. a, c, and e
B. a, b and c.
C. a, b c, and e.
D. a, b, c and d.
Answer: D

Question No : 44 Which statement best describes the purpose of a Green IT policy?
A. To ensure an organisation IT meets green legal requirements.To ensure an organisation? IT meets green legal requirements.
B. To inform stakeholders of an organisation Green IT approach.To inform stakeholders of an organisation? Green IT approach.
C. To allow an organisation to measure its Green IT performance.
D. To ensure Green IT is as important as other organisational initiatives.
070-461 dumps Answer: B

Question No : 45 Which of the following are risks to the success of a Green IT Programme?
a.Alienation of key staff.
b.Additional unplanned costs.
c.Perceived lack of benefits.
d.Early delivery of benefits.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. b and d.
D. c and d.
Answer: B

Question No : 46 What is the best definition of a Carbon Footprint?
A. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted within a defined geographical area.
B. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by an organisation.
C. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted by one person in one year.
D. The amount of greenhouse gas emitted minus the amount of carbon offsetting.
070-461 pdf Answer: B

Question No : 47 Which of the following actions should an organisation take to help realise the marketing value of green
IT?
a.Provide public disclosures of their environmental impact.
b.Redefine their business strategy to
include green initiatives.
c.Ensure all advertising focuses on its green message.
d.Provide a green
discount across all of its product range.
A. a, b, c and d.
B. a, b and c.
C. c and d.
D. a and b.
Answer: D

Question No : 48 Which of the following is a benefit of adopting green IT within an organisation?
A. Creating a culture of team-based working.
B. Promoting a culture of maximum productivity.
C. Establishing a culture of total innovation.
D. Developing a culture of social responsibility.
070-461 vce Answer: D

Question No : 49 What type of person is likely to benefit most from being set measurable targets within a Green IT programme?
A. Someone who constantly belittles the team and its achievements.
B. Someone who believes it is too late for the project to make a difference.
C. Someone who is committed but wants to do everything at once.
D. Someone who only participates if it helps their career opportunities.
Answer: C
070-461 dumps

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for SQL Server database administrators, system engineers, and developers with two or more years of experience, who are seeking to validate their skills and knowledge in writing queries.

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